Would reducing wages by X be as effective as reducing ‘passive’ income from assets (by a proportion of X) or by imposing a wealth cap?
Would reducing wages by X be as effective as reducing ‘passive’ income from assets (by a proportion of X) or by imposing a wealth cap?
Warmonger. Don’t the Ukrainians get a say in whether the US can sacrifice so many people for US goals?
The US was involved in WWII from the beginning. They were just on the side of the Nazis. The State only intervened openly in the end to prevent the spread of communism. Then they made sure to rescue as many Nazis as possible and put them in positions of power in West Germany, the EU, and NATO, etc.
Since that war, the US has been doing ‘what they pleased’, exactly what the Nazis and what Japan would’ve done. To this day the US tortures, runs concentration camps, and brutally oppresses billions of people around the world.
Those who argued for the US to stay out were right then, and are still right today.
Wtf is the US playing at?
Would it be all people in all locations or just people in (parts of) the global north? If the global south is included or excluded, how would UBI impact the current unequal transfer of value from the global south to the north? Can the north afford UBI without super-exploiting the south same will a UBI in the south undermine that super-exploitation?
In other words: will the north allow the south to implement any kind of UBI, given the terms and framework of IMF/WTO/World Bank?
The crux of these questions is: what affect will UBI have on global inequality?
Edit: I don’t expect answers to these questions. It would take a book to answer each one. It’s just something to think about.